Indian Policy & Governance Important Question’s Answers
Candidates who had applied for Assam TET & Assam Police Job recruitment in 2021, they must read following Indian Policy & Governance question’s & their answers carefully before sitting exam. These are the important GK frequently asked in Assam TET & Assam Police exam. Seems few questions here added already asked in the last few years, So this time before the exam all candidates must readout.
Assam TET & Assam Police Exam GK
1. The members of the Constituent Assembly met for the first time on-
A) 9 December 1945
B) 9 January 1946
C) 9 December 1946
D) 9 January 1947
2. In the Constituent Assembly majority of the members were from which Party?
A) RIP
B) Communists
C) Congress
D) Independents
3. What was the enforcement period of the Government of India Act of 1935?
A) 1935-1945
B) 1935-1946
C) 1935-1949
D) 1935-1950
4. The Government of India Act, 1935 changed the structure ofthe Indian Government from-
A) Federal to unitary
B) Unitary to federal
C) Parliamentary to Presidential
D) none of the above
5. The Constitution of India was drafted and enacted in which language-
A) Hindi
B) English
C) Tamil
D) Telugu
6. Tripura became a ‘C’ category state on-
A) 26th November 1949
B) 26th January 1950
C) 11th January 1952
D) None of these
7. The idea of a Constituent Assembly to form a Constitution of India was first mooted by-
A) the Muslim League in 1942
B) M. N. Roy in 1927
C) the Indian National Congress in 1936
D) The All Parties Conference in 1946
8. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly-
A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
B) B.N. Rao
C) Jagjivan Ram
D) None of the above
9. How many number of sessions were held in the Constituent Assembly-
A) Twenty sessions
B) Twelve sessions
C) Twenty-five sessions
D) Twenty-eight sessions
10. The Preamble of the Constitution of India secures to all its citizen’s justice-
A) Only social
B) Social and political
C) Political and economic
D) Social, economic and political
11. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in-
A) The United Kingdom
B) Australia
C) The United States
D) Canada
12. Doctrine of Locus Standi means-
A) Writ can be filed by any person.
B) Power of courts for judicial review.
C) Right of the petitioner to file the writ petition.
D) Discretion of administrative authority.
13. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of SC/ST is governed by-
A) Art. 16 (4) of the Constitution
B) Art. 15 (4) of the Constitution
C) Art. 29 (2) of the Constitution
D) None of the above
14. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution is related with the reservation in private educational institutions?
A) Ninety-first Amendment
B) Ninety-second Amendment
C) Ninety-third Amendment
D) None of the above
15. Lack of locus standi is generally not a bar for issuance of the writ of-
(A) Certiorari
(B) Prohibition
(C) Mandmus
(D) Quo warranto
16. Following does not fall under Article 21 of the Constitution-
A) Right to release of bonded labour
B) Right against cruel and unusual punishment
C) Right to education
D) Right to legal aid
17. The current approach to Article 14 is-
A) Reasonable classification
B) Nexus test
C) Equality is opposite to arbitrariness
D) Reasonableness
18. Right of a citizen to carryon any occupation, trade or business is a:
A) Contractual right
B) Right under Transfer of Property Act
C) Constitutional Right
D) Right under Partnership Act
19. Article 15(1) prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of-
A) Religion, race and caste only.
B) Religion, caste and sex only.
C) Religion, caste, sex and place of birth only
D) Religion, race, caste, sex, place (Oka) or any of them.
20. Right of equality of opportunity in the matters of public employment is under:
A) Industrial Dispute Act
B) Contract Act
C) Constitutional Right
D) Partnership Act
21. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is-
A) Three months
B) Four months
C) Five months
D) Six months
22. In which provision of the Constitution of India has incorporated the “principle of collective responsibility” of the Council of Ministers?
A) Article 75 (3)
B) Article 75 (1)
C)Article 171 (4)
D)Article 118 (4)
23. After a Money Bill has been passed by the House of the People, within how many days it is transmitted to the Council of States for its recommendations?
A) Thirty days
B) Twenty four days
C) Sixty days
D) Fourteen days
24. Residuary powers are vested in-
A) Executive
B) Judiciary
C) Parliament
D) state legislatures
25. The definition of ‘Money Bill’ is provided under-
A) Article 109
B) Article 110
C) Article 111
D) Article 112
26. The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of Parliament is-
A) Three months
B) Four months
C) Five months
D) Six months
27. Question Hour in the Parliament refers to-
A) the last hour of the sitting
B) the first hour of the sitting
C) the lunch hour after the sitting
D) the second hour of the sitting
28.. The correct form of address for the President of India is-
A) His Lordship
B) His Honour
C) His Highness
D) His Excellency
29. The Chief of Indian Armed Forces is-
A) President of India
B) Prime Minister
C) Defence Minister
D) Home Minister
30. The Constitution has vested the executive power of the Union Government in-
A) The President.
B) The Prime Minister.
C) The Council of Ministers.
D) All of the above three.
31. The number of Judges of the Supreme Court is determined by the-
A) Chief Justice of India
B) President of India
C) Parliament
D) President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
32. The oath of office to the Judges of the High Court is administered by the-
A) Chief Minister
B) President
C) Chief Justice of India
D) Governor of respective State
33. In the event of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and the Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till a new President is elected?
A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
B) Chief Justice of India
C) Prime Minister of India
34. The Supreme Court is a court of record means-
A) It has the powers of a court to punish for contempt of itself
B) Its judgments are binding on all courts
C) It has powers to pass orders for enforcement of its own judgments
D) Full faith and credit shall be given to all its judgments
35. Disputes among the States in India come to the Supreme Court under-
A) Appellate jurisdiction
B) Advisory jurisdiction
C) Original jurisdiction
D) None of the above
36. What is the minimum number of judges of the Supreme Court who must sit together to constitute a Constitution Bench?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
37. The High Court of a State is under the direct supervision of-
A) Governor
B) President
C) Parliament
D) Supreme Court
38. The. Governor does not appoint the
A) Chief Minister
B) Judges of the High Court
C) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
D) None of them
39. The retirement age for a High Court Judge-
A) Is the same as the retirement age for a District Judge.
B) Is the same as the retirement age for Supreme Court Judge.
C) Is lower than the retirement age for a District Judge.
D) Is lower than the retirement age for a Supreme Court Judge.
40. A retired Judge of a High Court can-
A) practice in any Court in India
B) practice in the High Court from where he has retired
C) practice in any High Court in India
D) practice in the Supreme Court
41. The authoritative texts of all orders, rules, regulations, and bye-laws issued under the Constitution shall be in-
(A). Hindi
(B). Either Hindi or English
(C). Sanskrit
(D). English
42. What is the meaning of ‘Foreign State’ as given in the Indian Constitution?
A) Federal State
B) Commonwealth-State
C) Nation
D) Any State other than India
43. Which of the following is not a constitutional office?
A) Solicitor General
B) Advocate General
C) Comptroller and Auditor General
D) Attorney General
44. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 has been repealed by-
A) Art.393
B) Art.394
C) Art. 395
D) None of the above.
45. Article 239 AB of the Constitution provides
A) Power of administrator to promulgate ordinances during recess of the legislature.
B) Power of the President to make regulations for certain Union Territories.
C) Provision in case of failure of constitutional machinery of national Capital Territory.
D) None of the above
46. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?
A) Fundamental rights are in Part III of the Constitution.
B) Directive Principle of State Policy is in Part IV of the Constitution.
C) Fundamental Duties are in Part IV of the Constitution.
D) Union Territories are in Part VII of the Constitution.
47. In which Article of the Constitution of India, provision has been made for “Finance Commission”?
A) 366(12)
B) 280
C) 265 s
D) None of the above
48. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President for every-
A) two years
B) three years
C) five years
D) four years
49. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?
A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
B) Manulana Abul Kalam Azad
C) B R Ambedkar
D) T Krishnamachari
50. Which provision of the Constitution imposes a duty on the Union to ensure that the Government of every State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?
A) Article 352
B) Article 355
C) Article 356
D) Article 360
Answers
1. (C), 2. (C), 3. (D), 4. (B), 5. (B), 6. (B), 7. (B), 8. (A), 9. (B), 10. (D), 11. (C), 12. (C), 13. (B), 14. (C), 15. (D), 16. (C), 17. (A), 18. (C), 19. (D), 20. (C), 21. (D), 22. (A), 23. (D), 24. (C), 25. (B), 26. (D), 27. (B), 28. (D), 29. (A), 30. (A), 31. (C), 32. (D), 33. (B), 34. (A), 35. (C), 36. (B), 37. (D), 38. (B), 39. (D), 40. (D), 41. (D), 42. (D), 43. (A), 44. (C), 45. (C), 46. (C), 47. (B), 48. (C), 49. (C), 50. (B),